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Top 100+ Electrical & Electronics Quiz Questions With Explanation

Chetan Shidling
top 100_ Electrical And Electronics quiz questions with explanation

Hello guys, welcome back to my blog. In this article, I will discuss the top 100+ electrical & electronics quiz questions with explanation, electrical MCQ for an interview, electrical objective type questions asked in an interview, electrical MCQ asked in competitive exams, etc.

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Top 100+ Electrical & Electronics Quiz Questions

1.which of the following condition is not required for parallel operation of alternate?

  1. The terminal voltage of the incoming alternator must be the same as the bus bar voltage
  2. The speed of the incoming machine must be such that its frequency equals the bus bar frequency
  3. The phase of the alternator voltage must be identical with the phase of the bus bar voltage
  4. The rating of the incoming alternator should be the same as the ratings of the existing alternators connected to the busbar

Ans: 2

Because the main conditions for parallel operation of alternators are it’s having equal voltages, the same phase sequence, and the frequency of generated voltage must be equal to the frequency of the bus bar voltage.

2.What is the main requirement of the insulating materials used for Underground cable?

  1. Dielectric strength
  2. I flammable
  3. Hygroscopic
  4. High permitivity

And: 1

The insulating material needs to have a high dielectric strength to avoid electrical break down of the cable.

3.The open circuit test is conducted on a transformer, to find

  1. Copper loss
  2. Iron loss
  3. Friction loss
  4. Total loss

Ans: 2

OC test is used to find the iron loss, SC test is used to find the copper loss, friction loss is find by using a friction loss equation, and by using all these losses we find the total losses.

4.In a single-phase induction motor, speed sensitive centrifugal switch is connected in ______________ winding

  1. Parallel with the main
  2. Series with the main
  3. Series with starting
  4. Parallel with starting

Ans: 3

The primary function of the centrifugal switch is to produce rotating flux in conjunction with the main winding at the time of starting.

5. The type of DC motor used for constant drive system is

  1. Series motor
  2. Shunt motor
  3. Cumulative compound motor
  4. Differential compound motor

Ans: 2

The series and compound motors are used for high starting torque and there is a chance of varying speed. For constant applications we mostly prefer shunt motors

6. The speed at which a 4-pole alternator should be driven to generate a voltage at 50Hz is

  1. 1000 rpm
  2. 500 rpm
  3. 1500 rpm
  4. 10000 rpm

Ans: 3

N=120×f/P =120×50/4= 1500 rpm

7. The disadvantage of the short pitched coil is

  1. Harmonics are introduced
  2. The voltage induced in the coil is reduced
  3. Waveform becomes nonsinusoidal
  4. Copper losses are increased

Ans: 2

Because the voltage induced on both sides of the short-pitched coil is narrowly out of phase. Therefore the resultant vector sum is less than their arithmetic sum.

8. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is

  1. Directly proportional to the area of the plates
  2. Inversely proportional to the area of the plates
  3. Directly proportional to the distance between plates
  4. Inversely proportional to the permittivity of the dielectric

Ans: 1

Capacitance= Electrostatic constant × Area/distance

9. As per the Flemings right-hand rule, the direction of induced emf is given by the direction of

  1. Thumb
  2. Middle finger
  3. Forefinger
  4. Ring finger

Ans: 2

Thumb indicates the motion of the conductor, forefinger indicates the induced emf and middle finger indicates the direction of the current.

10. MOSFET is a __________ controlled device

  1. Current
  2. Voltage
  3. Power
  4. Temperature

Ans: 2

Due to the Sio2 layer between the gate and the body, there is no input current, so in the MOSFET all the things are controlled by voltage hence it is a voltage-controlled device.

Tag: Top 100+ Electrical & Electronics Quiz Questions

11. Which of the following is called a DC transformer?

  1. Cycloconverters
  2. Chopper
  3. Inverter
  4. GTO

Ans: 2

Chopper converts fixed Dc into variable Dc same like as transformer in Ac.

12. In a voltage source inverter the following is connected at the input side of the inverter to maintain a constant voltage

  1. Resistor
  2. Inductor
  3. Combination of resistor and capacitor
  4. Capacitor

Ans: 4

The capacitor is used to maintain the constant output voltage by eliminating ripples and avoiding fluctuations in output.

13. SCR is protected against di/dt by

  1. Series inductor
  2. Series capacitor
  3. Shunt capacitor
  4. Combination of resistor and capacitor

Ans: 1

By using an inductor we can prevent the sudden increase or sudden change in current so, SCR protected against di/dt.

14. Blackout of power line disturbance means

  1. Overvoltage
  2. Harmonics
  3. Power outage
  4. EMI

Ans: 3

Power outage or block out says that there is a loss of power in a particular area.

15. The dielectric loss is proportional to

  1. Frequency
  2. √Frequency
  3. 2×Frequency
  4. Frequency×Frequency

Ans: 1

Dielectric loss=(voltage)^2×frequency

16. The greatest noise is produced in

  1. Oil circuit breaker
  2. Vacuum circuit breaker
  3. Airblast circuit breaker
  4. SF6 circuit breaker

Ans: 3

Under fault conditions, the air blast circuit breaker produces the greatest noise.

17. An example of a symmetrical fault is

  1. Single line to ground fault
  2. Line to line fault
  3. Three-phase short circuit fault
  4. Double line to ground fault

Ans: 3

Three-phase short circuit fault is a symmetrical fault remaining are asymmetrical faults.

18. The self-destruction of a transistor due to increase in temperature is called

  1. Heat breakdown
  2. Heat explosion
  3. Thermal runaway
  4. Thermal expansion

Ans: 3

Thermal runaway is the situation where the temperature rises very highly it causes transistor damage.

19.which of the following material is commonly used for the filaments in an incandescent lamps?

  1. Nichrome
  2. Tungsten
  3. Silver
  4. Tantalum

Ans: 2

Tungsten has a high melting point and high resistivity it leads light will glow at high temperatures.

20. The acronym of LCD stands for

  1. Liquid Candle Display
  2. Liquid Crystal Display
  3. Light Candle Device
  4. Light Crystal Device

Ans: 2

A method of displaying readings with the help of liquid crystal.

21. Half adder is made________and_______gates

  1. EXOR and AND gates
  2. EXNOR and AND gates
  3. EXOR and OR gates
  4. EXNOR and OR gates

Ans: 1

Half adder is made up of Exor and AND gates.

22. In a three-phase induction motor, the speed of the rotor is always__________the synchronous speed

  1. Less then
  2. Independent of
  3. Greater then
  4. Equal to

Ans: 1

Rotor speed is always less than synchronous speed due to lag between the current and flux in the rotor and flux current in the stator, the rotor will never reach it’s rotating magnetic field speed.

23. The starting torque of an induction motor is maximum when rotor resistance per phase________rotor reactance per phase

  1. Greater than
  2. Lesser than
  3. Twice
  4. Equal to

Ans: 4

Under the running condition, whenever the rotor reactance is equal to the rotor resistance then the maximum torque occurred.

24. A four-pole, 50Hz single phase induction motor is running with a slip of 3.4%. The speed of the motor is________

  1. 1500rpm
  2. 1540rpm
  3. 1449rpm
  4. 1279rpm

Ans: 3

Synchronous speed=120×frequency/poles. Then Slip=Ns-N/Ns by using this formula we find the speed of the motor.

25. The speed of the synchronous motor is can be changed by varying the

  1. Supply voltage
  2. Supply frequency
  3. field excitation
  4. Load

Ans: 2

Ns=120×f/p. The speed is directly proportional to the frequency so by varying frequency we change the synchronous speed.

26. Damper winding in a synchronous motor is used to

  1. To improve the power factor
  2. Reduce the losses
  3. Vary speed
  4. Start the motor

Ans: 4

Damper winding in a synchronous motor to start on its own by providing starting torque.

27. Which of the following properties of a refrigerant is undesirable

  1. The low specific volume of vapor
  2. High latent heat of vaporization
  3. Nontoxic
  4. High boiling point

Ans: 4

The refrigerator must have a low boiling point that it should have the ability to turn into gas easily when it absorbs heat.

28. To serially shift a byte of data into a shift register, there must be

  1. 7 clock pulses
  2. 8 clock pulses
  3. 4 clock pulses
  4. 5 clock pulses

Ans: 2

To serially shift a byte of data into a shift register there must be an 8 clock pulse.

Tag: Top 100+ Electrical & Electronics Quiz Questions

29. The length of cable required for a single circuit of 66kv transmission line running 80km long with 3% sag is

  1. 240km
  2. 247.2km
  3. 240km
  4. 270km

Ans: 2

30. The reduction of utility load during peak demand is

  1. Peak loading
  2. Peak clipping
  3. Load shifting
  4. Valley filling

Ans: 2

The reduction of utility load during peak demand is peak clipping.

31. A MOSFET and a capacitor is used as a memory cell in_________memory

  1. SRAM
  2. DROM
  3. ROM
  4. DRAM

Ans: 4

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DRAM-based around the MOS capacitors. These require very low power to keep the stored value when not being accessed.

32. The efficiency of full wave rectifier is

  1. 40.4%
  2. 80.8%
  3. 78.6%
  4. 81.2%

Ans: 4

The maximum efficiency of a full-wave rectifier is 81.2% and a half-wave rectifier is 40.6%

33. Memory that does not loose it’s contents when the power is switched off is____________memory

  1. Volatile
  2. Static
  3. Random
  4. Nonvolatile

Ans: 4

Read-Only Memory is the type of nonvolatile memory.

34. A klystron used as a

  1. Amplifier
  2. Mixer
  3. Oscillator
  4. Rectifier

Ans: 1

The amplifier is used for high radio frequencies, from ultra-high frequencies to microwave ranges.

35. A circular orbit around the equator with a 24hour time period is called

  1. Asynchronous orbit
  2. Polar orbit
  3. Geostationary orbit
  4. Transfer orbit

Ans: 3

This satellite is not aligned directly over the equator, the orbit is known as inclined orbit.

36. The operation of a fiber optic cable is based on the principle of

  1. Reflection
  2. Refraction
  3. Absorption
  4. Dissipation

Ans: 1

Light transmits along the axis by their internal reflections.

37. In an amplitude modulator, the LC tuned circuit functions as

  1. Mixer
  2. Oscillator
  3. Amplifier
  4. Filter

Ans: 2

In an amplitude modulator, the LC tuned circuit functions as an oscillator.

38. Which of the following motors are best for the rolling mills

  1. Single-phase motors
  2. Squirrel cage induction motors
  3. Slip ring induction motors
  4. D.C motors

Ans: 4

High starting torque DC motors are used for rolling mills.

39. In a paper mill, where constant speed is required the preferred drive is

  1. Synchronous motor drive
  2. Individual drive
  3. Group drive
  4. AC motor drive

Ans: 2

In an individual drive, a single motor is used to operate a load and all the operations are connected to the load.

40. A zener diode is invariably used with

  1. Zero bias
  2. Reverse bias
  3. Forward bias
  4. None of the above

Ans: 2

Usually, normal diodes don’t work under the reverse bias condition but Zener diode works under the reverse bias condition up to a certain voltage level.

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Tag: Top 100+ Electrical & Electronics Quiz Questions

41. A amplifier output has a phase shift of

  1. 0°
  2. 180°
  3. 90°
  4. 45°

Ans: 2

An amplifier output has a phase shift of 180°

42. In which of the following coefficient of adhesion decreases

  1. Rust on the rails
  2. Sand on the rails
  3. Dust on the rails
  4. Oil on the rails

Ans: 4

The coefficient of adhesion decreases due to oil on the rails and also dew on the rails.

43. The condition for maximum efficiency of a DC generator is

  1. Constant losses=Variable losses
  2. Constant losses<Variable losses
  3. Constant losses>Variable losses
  4. Constant losses=2×Variable losses

Ans: 1

Condition for maximum efficiency occurred when (Wc=I^2R).

44. The specifications of GI earth plate is

  1. 60cm×60cm×5mm
  2. 60cm×60cm×6mm
  3. 60cm×60cm×4mm
  4. 60cm×60cm×3mm

Ans: 2

Specification of GI earth pipe is 60cm×60cm×6mm

45. The factor of safety used for current ratings in a power installation is

  1. 0.7
  2. 2
  3. 1.7
  4. 1

Ans: 2

The factor of safety used for current ratings in a power installation is 2

46. Heat utilized by the substance is given by

  1. E^2RT joules
  2. I^2RT joules
  3. MS(t2-t1) joules
  4. MS^2 joules

Ans: 3

Every substance having its characteristic specific heat that is expressed by using the above formula.

47. If the capacitance is 4 microfarads for a potential difference of 2000volts the charge deposited is

  1. 8×10^-3 C
  2. 6×10^-6 C
  3. 4×10^-3 C
  4. 5×10^-6 C

Ans: 1

Q=C/V by using this formula we get the charge.

48. When the relative permeability of a material is slightly more than1, it is called as

  1. Diamagnetic material
  2. Ferromagnetic material
  3. Nonmagnetic material
  4. Paramagnetic material

Ans: 4

Relative permeability less than 1 for diamagnetic material, Ferromagnetic material has a high relative permeability compared to all this, nonmagnetic material has a relative permeability is almost equal to 1 and for paramagnetic material, it is slightly more than 1.

49. The relationship between the line voltage and phase voltage of the star-connected circuit is given by

  1. Line voltage=Phase voltage
  2. Line voltage<Phase voltage
  3. Line voltage>Phase voltage
  4. Line voltage=2×Phase voltage

Ans: 1

In star connection Line voltage=phase voltage.

50. A 4 pole wave wound DC generator with 50 slots, each slot containing the 20conductors driven at 1200rpm, the flux per pole being 7×10^-3wb. The voltage generated is

  1. 140v
  2. 2800v
  3. 180v
  4. 280v

Ans: 4

E=Flux ×Z×N×P/60×A by using this we easily calculate the voltage.

51. The dummy coils used in a DC machine are used to the

  1. Increase the efficiency
  2. Improve commutation
  3. Mechanically balance armature
  4. Reduce machine cost

Ans: 3

The dummy coils are used to balance the armature.

52. Load saturation characteristics of a separately excited DC generator gives the relation between

  1. Voltage and field current
  2. Generated emf and field current
  3. Generated emf and armature current
  4. None of the above

Ans: 1

These characteristics are drawn between load voltage and load current. The voltage is obtained by subtracting ohmic losses from generating voltage.

53. The current drawn by 120v DC motor of armature resistance 0.5ohms and back emf of 110volts is___________Amperes

  1. 20
  2. 24
  3. 21
  4. 5

Ans: 1

Armature current= Terminal voltage – Back emf/armature resistance. By using this formula we find armature resistance.

Tag: Top 100+ Electrical & Electronics Quiz Questions

54. Pelton wheel is

  1. Inward flow impulse turbine
  2. Outward flow impulse turbine
  3. Mixed flow reaction turbine
  4. Tangential flow impulse turbine

Ans: 4

Pelton wheel is an impulse turbine with a tangential flow.

55. The material used for the control rod is

  1. Cadmium
  2. Graphite
  3. Heavy water
  4. Beryllium

Ans: 1

Control rods are placed in a nuclear reactor to avoid the fission process by excessive neutrons.

56. The winds produced due to uneven heating and cooling of ground surfaces, oceans, rivers, hills, etc are called

  1. Global winds
  2. Local winds
  3. Planetary winds
  4. polar winds

Ans: 2

Local winds are blowing over small regions having low and high-pressure systems.

57. The fuel used in a fuel cell is

  1. Oxygen
  2. Nitrogen
  3. Carbon
  4. Hydrogen

Ans: 4

Through fuel cell, chemical energy is converted into electrical energy.

58. The voltage of a single solar cell is about

  1. 0.5v
  2. 0.7v
  3. 1.2v
  4. 1.5v

Ans: 1

Single junction solar cell can produce an open circuit voltage of 0.5 to 0.6volts.

59. The transient voltage that appears across the contacts of the circuit breaker at or near current zero during the arcing period is called

  1. Arcing period
  2. Restriking voltage
  3. Recovery voltage
  4. Breaking voltage

Ans: 2

Whenever current zero there is a development of high-frequency transient voltage in the breaker due to this there is a sudden distribution of energy between electric and magnetic field.

60. Which of the following is true with respect to a fuse or circuit breaker

  1. A fuse performs both detection and interruption
  2. A circuit breaker performs both detection and interruption
  3. Fuse performs interruption only
  4. Circuit breaker performs detection only

Ans: 1

A fuse performed both detection and interruption. Circuit breaker performs the only interruption.

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61. The recovery voltage in a circuit breaker is maximum for a power factor of

  1. 0.5
  2. Zero
  3. 0.707
  4. Unity

Ans: 2

The recovery voltage in a circuit breaker is maximum for a power factor of zero.

62. Earthing screen provides protection against

  1. Short circuit current
  2. Direct lightning strokes
  3. Indirect lightning strokes
  4. Overload

Ans: 2

Earthing screen fail to provide protection against traveling waves.

63. Burden of a relay represents

  1. The volt-ampere rating of the relay
  2. Current rating of the relay
  3. Voltage rating of the relay
  4. The power rating of the relay in watts

Ans: 1

Burden the word says that the load connected the secondary side of the load having a certain value of current and voltage.

64. In a synchronous counter

  1. All flip flops do not change state at the same time
  2. The output of a flip-flop is given as a clock to the next flip-flop
  3. All flip flops change state at the same time
  4. The clock input is not required for succeeding flipflops

Ans: 3

In synchronous counter, clock input across all flip flops uses the same source because all flip-flops change state at the same time.

65. The OR operation can be produced by using

  1. Three NAND gate
  2. Two NAND gates
  3. Three NOR gates
  4. Two NOR gates

Ans: 1, 4

Three NAND gates and two NOR gates produce OR operation. Two NAND gates and three NOR gates produce AND operation.

66. The 2s complement of the binary number 0001 is

  1. 0101
  2. 1011
  3. 1111
  4. 1110

Ans: 3

For a given number first, we need to change that particularly given number into 1’s complement then add 1 to the List significant digit then we get 2’s complement.

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67. The boolean expression A+BC=1 when

  1. A=1,B=0,C=0
  2. A=1,B=0,C=1
  3. A=0,B=1,C=0
  4. A=1,B=1,C=0

Ans: 1

The values which are satisfied with the given question is the chosen answer.

68. A pattern of voltage and current variations along a transmission line not terminated in its characteristics impedance results in

  1. Electric field
  2. Radio wave
  3. Standing wave
  4. Magnetic field

Ans: 3

69. Electricity at rest is called

  1. Dynamic charge
  2. Positive charge
  3. Static charge
  4. Negative charge

Ans: 3

There is no movement of charged particles is called a static charge.

70. The two resistances R1 and R2 connected in parallel this parallel combination is connected in series with R3 the equivalent resistance is

  1. (R1R2/R1+R2)+R3
  2. (R1R3/R1+R3)+R2
  3. (R1R2/R1+R2)×R3
  4. (R1+R3/R1R3)+R2

Ans: 1

Equivalent resistance=(product of parallel-connected resistors/Sum of parallel-connected resistors)+series resistance.

71. When 1ohm,2ohm,3ohm, and 9ohm resistors are connected in series across 100volts DC supply, The resistor which has less voltage drop is

  1. 6ohms
  2. 3ohms
  3. 2ohms
  4. 1ohm

Ans: 4

Equivalent resistance= 1+2+3+9= 15ohms then current I=100/15=6.666amp. Voltage drops for each resistors are, for 1ohm V1=6.666×1=6.666volts.

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72. Resistance of mercury is

  1. Increases with temperature
  2. Decreases with temperature
  3. Remains constant
  4. Is zero at all temperature

Ans: 1

The resistance of mercury increases with temperature.

73. A house consists of 100watts bulbs of three numbers and 70watts fan of three numbers If they are used 5hours per day. The units consumed per week

  1. 15.05kwh
  2. 17.05kwh
  3. 16.75kwh
  4. 18.25kwh

Ans: 2

100×3=300watts, 70×3=210watts, and total power=300+210=510watts. For calculating energy =power ×time=510×5=2550 energy consumed per week 2550×7=17.05kwh

74. In the following regulator the output voltage polarity is opposite to that of input voltage

  1. Buck regulator
  2. Buck-Boost regulator
  3. Boost regulator
  4. Flyback DC-DC converter

Ans: 2

In a buck-boost converter, the output voltage is of the opposite polarity than the input.

75. In the resistance firing circuit the firing angle can be varied upto

  1. 90°
  2. 180°
  3. 270°
  4. 360°

Ans: 1

In RC firing circuits the firing angle is greater than 180° but in the case of resistance, it is 90°.

76. In phase control, the load voltage is varied by varying

  1. Source voltage
  2. Source current
  3. Firing angle
  4. Using L and C components

Ans: 3

In phase control, by varying of firing angle there is a variation in voltage.

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77. Frequent starting and stopping of electric motors is required in

  1. Paper mills
  2. Air conditioners
  3. Grinding mills
  4. Lifts and hoists

Ans: 4

Dc compound motors are used for lifts nowadays a 3phase induction motors are preferred for it.

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78. Which of the following motors are used for elevators

  1. Synchronous motor
  2. Three-phase induction motor
  3. Capacitor start single phase induction motor
  4. DC series motor

Ans: 2

In elevators, three-phase induction motors are used.

79. The closeness with which instrument reading approaches the true value of the quantity being measured is

  1. Sensitivity
  2. Accuracy
  3. Precision
  4. Repeatability

Ans: 2

80. Which of the following is correct with respect to ammeter and voltmeter

  1. Ammeters should be connected in parallel
  2. Voltmeters should be connected in series
  3. Ammeters should have low resistance
  4. Voltmeters should have low resistance

Ans: 3

Because the current and resistance are inversely proportional and for ammeter must have low resistance.

81. A transducer converts

  1. Mechanical displacement into an electrical signal
  2. One form of energy into another form of energy
  3. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
  4. Electrical energy into mechanical energy

Ans: 2

Transducers are the devices that convert one form of energy into another form either mechanical, electrical…etc.

82. A thermocouple is a

  1. Voltage generating transducers
  2. Variable resistance type transducers
  3. Variable capacitance type transducers
  4. Variable Inductance type transducers

Ans: 1

A thermocouple is a sensor that is used to measure the temperature.

83. LVDT converts

  1. Converts electrical signal into linear motion
  2. Measuring high temperature
  3. Converts linear motion into an electrical signal
  4. Used to measure the frequency

Ans: 3

Linear Variable Differential Transformer is a device that convert one form of energy into another form.

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84. At resonance the body vibrates with

  1. Small amplitude
  2. Large amplitude
  3. Zero amplitude
  4. Same amplitude

Ans: 2

At resonance, the body vibrates with a large amplitude at that time the occurred frequency is the resonant frequency.

85. LASER is used in

  1. LIDAR
  2. RADAR
  3. SONAR
  4. GPS

Ans:

86. Nano means

  1. One-hundredth of a meter
  2. One-thousandth of a meter
  3. One million of meter
  4. One billion of meter

Ans: 4

87. Alloy of steel is

  1. Chromium, iron, and nickel
  2. Chromium, iron, and zinc
  3. Chromium, iron, and aluminium
  4. Chromium, iron, and tin

Ans: 1

Steel is a combination of chromium, iron, and nickel.

88. The statement which is true for a fuel cell is

  1. They make more pollution
  2. They produce noise
  3. They liberate more heat
  4. They are heavy in weight

Ans: 3

Fuel cells liberate more heat.

89. The materials with weak intermolecular forces of attraction between polymer chains are

  1. Elastomers
  2. Fibers
  3. Thermoplastics
  4. Thermosetting polymers

Ans: 1

90. The value of 20peta Hz is

  1. 20×10^9 Hz
  2. 20×10^12 Hz
  3. 20×10^16 Hz
  4. 20×10^15 Hz

Ans: 3

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Tag: Top 100+ Electrical & Electronics Quiz Questions

91. The fastest mode of transfer of heat is

  1. Conduction
  2. Convection
  3. Radiation
  4. Transmission

Ans: 3

The fastest mode of transfer of heat is Radiation and the slowest mode of heat transfer is conduction.

92. Microphone is a

  1. Transducers
  2. Transmitter
  3. Receiver
  4. Channel

Ans: 1

The microphone is a sound transducer.

93. The principle behind the optical fiber is

  1. Total internal refraction
  2. Total internal reflection
  3. Reflection
  4. Refraction

Ans: 2

94. Faraday’s law of electrolysis is represented mathematically as

  1. M=ZQ
  2. Z=MQ
  3. Q=MZ
  4. M=Z/Q

Ans: 1

M=ZQ where (Q=I×T), M=ZIT. The mass of substance deposited or liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of charge passed through it.

95. A galvanic cell set up between two dissimilar metals in contact is called

  1. Concentration cell
  2. Composition cell
  3. Stress cell
  4. Secondary cell

Ans: 1

96. In which of these cells the reaction can be reversed

  1. Primary cell
  2. Secondary cell
  3. Solar cell
  4. Photocell

Ans: 2

Secondary cells are rechargeable cells.

97. The velocity of sound in a gas is independent of

  1. Temperature
  2. Pressure
  3. Humidity
  4. Density

Ans: 2

The speed of sound in a gas is independent of the pressure of the gas.

98. The superposition of two waves of the same frequency moving in the opposite direction is

  1. Progressive wave
  2. Transverse wave
  3. Sound wave
  4. Stationary wave

Ans:

Don’t stop here read complete article of electrical MCQ for interview.

99. Among this which is the vector quantity

  1. Work
  2. Energy
  3. Surface tension
  4. Power

Ans:

100. Shock absorbers in automobiles is an example of

  1. Tensile stress
  2. Compressive stress
  3. Shear stress
  4. Breaking stress

Ans:

101. Boyles law applicable to

  1. Isothermal process
  2. Isobaric process
  3. Isochoric process
  4. Isotonic process

Ans: 1

Boyles law is applicable for an Isothermal process where the temperature is constant.

102. The elasticity of steel compared to rubber is

  1. More
  2. Less
  3. Equal
  4. Less or equal

Ans: 1

103. The stress-strain graph for an elastic body within an elastic limit is

  1. Linear
  2. Hyperbola
  3. Curved
  4. Parabola

Ans: 1

104. At absolute zero temperature, the pressure and volume of a given mass of gas is

  1. 1
  2. 273
  3. -273
  4. 0

Ans: 4

105. The sound waves and light waves can be differentiated by

  1. Interference
  2. Diffraction
  3. Reflection
  4. Polarization

Ans: 2

I hope this article “Top 100+ Electrical & Electronics Quiz Questions” may help you all a lot. Thank you for reading “Top 100+ Electrical & Electronics Quiz Questions”.

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